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Wipro Infotech .NET interview Questions

Wipro Infotech .NET interview Questions (05Feb2010)

1. when you will use HttpHandlers

2. what you will impiment in HttpModule

3. In the Page , suppose in preRender value=x and in the pageload value=y after page loads which value will be displayed.

4. how you will improve the webapplication performance.

5. What is Agile methodology ? which methodolgy followed in your project ?

6. How many members can be work by implimenting Scrum/Iteration methods ?

7. What is Ajax ?

8. Difference between Asynchronous and Synchronous ?

9. which is the best gridview or repeater

10. exception handling in stored proc.. how you will catch an error message 

11. exception handling in asp.net application..(expecting log files to be create in production live )

12. how many members involve in scrum methodology

13. how u implimented design patterns in ur projects

14. how you will reduce the page size

15. what will happen if we use response.buffer and response.flush

16. how u will refresh the page using .net code

17. what is webservice

18. what is soap

19. how u will consume the webservice in asp.net application

20. how u will set proxy to access webservice

21. what is wsdl

22. Windows and Forms Authentication

24. In Forma Authentication how you will validate the users if it is in database

25. When you will use State Server and SqlServer 

26. State Management

27. Valid XML format

28. programming : Write a code in Ajax ,select one dropdownlist based on that it should reflect in another dropdownlist

29. programming : In table , having States as a coulmn. based on coumn it should be displayed a record using DataTable

30. programming : select dropdownlist based on that it should be displayed on Gridview

31. programming : In gridview, first column value should be displayed tooltip

32. programming : need to popup dialog box every 20 min ok and cancel button should be displayed

in the ok button and the cancel button code what code you will write.

Microsoft Interview Placement Paper Pattern

Computer Architecture:

1. Explain what is DMA?
2. What is pipelining?
3. What are superscalar machines and vliw machines?
4. What is cache?
5. What is cache coherency and how is it eliminated?
6. What is write back and write through caches?
7. What are different pipelining hazards and how are they eliminated.
8. What are different stages of a pipe?
9. Explain more about branch prediction in controlling the control hazards
10. Give examples of data hazards with pseudo codes.
11. How do you calculate the number of sets given its way and size in a cache?
12. How is a block found in a cache?
13. Scoreboard analysis.
14. What is miss penalty and give your own ideas to eliminate it.
15. How do you improve the cache performance.
16. Different addressing modes.
17. Computer arithmetic with two’s complements.
18. About hardware and software interrupts.
19. What is bus contention and how do you eliminate it.
20. What is aliasing?
21) What is the difference between a latch and a flip flop?
22) What is the race around condition? How can it be overcome?
23) What is the purpose of cache? How is it used?
24) What are the types of memory management?

Databases:

1. You, a designer want to measure disk traffic i.e. get a histogram showing the relative frequency of I/O/second for each disk block. The buffer pool has b buffers and uses LRU replacement policy. The disk block size and buffer pool block sizes are the same. You are given a routine int lru_block_in_position (int i) which returns the block_id of the block in the i-th position in the list of blocks managed by LRU. Assume position 0 is the hottest. You can repeatedly call this routine.

How would you get the histogram you desire?

Hints and Answers

1. Simply do histogram [lru_block_in_position (b-1)] ++ at frequent intervals… The sampling frequency should be close to the disk I/O rate. It can be adjusted by remembering the last block seen in position b. If same, decrease frequency; if different, increase, with exponential decay etc. And of course, take care of overflows in the histogram.

Semaphores:

1. Implement a multiple-reader-single-writer lock given a compare-and-swap instruction. Readers cannot overtake waiting writers.

Java:

1. How do you find the size of a java object (not the primitive type) ?
ANS. type cast it to string and find its s.length()

2. Why is multiple inheritance not provided in Java?
3. Thread t = new Thread(); t.start(); t = null; now what will happen to the created thread?
4. How is garbage collection done in java?
5. How do you write a “ping” routine in java?
6. What are the security restrictions on applets?

Graphics:

1. Write a function to check if two rectangles defined as below overlap or not. struct rect { int top, bot, left, right; } r1, r2;

2. Write a SetPixel(x, y) function, given a pointer to the bitmap. Each pixel is represented by 1 bit. There are 640 pixels per row. In each byte, while the bits are numbered right to left, pixels are numbered left to right. Avoid multiplications and divisions to improve performance

HCL Technology 2010 placement paper

hi friends . . .
This is dharmendra gangrade MCA 2010 Batch from VIT University Vellore(TN)

HCL Technology was came in our college at 12th January 2010 for recruitment
abt HCL everybody know its a very good IT-company
it is very well known for its “employee first”…policy

=>Eligible Branches:
1. B.Tech(selected branches)
2. M.Tech(selected branches)
3. MCA & MS(SE)

=>Eligibility:
1. 60% in X,XII,UG as applicable
2. 6 CGPA in pursuing degree and NO CURRENT ARREARS(cleared all papers in first
attempt in pursuing degree)
these things may vary some times

=>HCL pattern for 2010 at our college was
[A]Online Test
[B]Technical
[C]HR-interview
at our time NO GD

[A]
The test was an online one
=>The question pattern for HCL is as follows
1. Verbal - 25 questions - 25 min
2. Aptitude - 25 questions - 35 min
3. Logical reasoning - 25 questions - 35 min

Note:
1.No jumping between questions is possible.
2.Only if you finish the first question, than only you can go to the other one.

around 10-11am they took the test online
around 11-12am they gave ppt about HCL Technology
around 12.30pm they announced the online test result
and from their itself we have to go for HR and Technical round

so abt test it was simple some common topics was
Probability,Permutations and Combination,Work, Distance, Time
Sentence Correction,Passage reading
Synonyms & Antonyms,Sentence matching for the conditions based on the Passage,
simple English questions,
and many more…
just focus on RS Agarwal both books (quantitative aptitude and
verbal,non-verbal reasoning),
and a simple English objective book
solve some puzzles also
during test maintain the speed …

[B]&[C]
After that Tech and HR was common for us
in HCL interview they asked some very simple questions like ->
1. tell me something abt ur self ?
2. abt software project management….some basics ?(this question based on your area of
interest)
3. oracle9i and 10g ?
4. xml ?
5. basics of java ?
6. advance technologies in java ?
7. if i wont select so what will be the reasons ?
8. if u dont kno any technology and i will give u work based on that tech. how will u do?
9. diff b/w xp and vista ?
10. your long term and short term goals ?
11. strengths?
12. some times abt your project…work
13. some questions from ur resume directly
Some questions from ppt also…
some HR questions was very tricky….
and many more near abt 25+ minute….
….u have to be very good in English and communication skills for some of my friends the questions was like based on multi-threading,iso-osi model,process model,stack and queue,oops,sql-query,
=>don’t go for ONLY these questions be ready for any technical and HR question focus on your area of interest and some basic subjects like
c,c++,java,ds,db,softy,os,n/w,
and 1 more thing…… they r really nice people…..
just be honest, be cool, and most important is be confident….

in the night 8.30 they disclosed the results
and i was there….in the list…
total 42/180+ students are selected
(From MCA me and my two more friends total 3/25+)…

so now onwards i am a part of HCL family…
thanks to VIT and HCL for giving me this opportunity and thanks to frieshersworld…
“EVERY BODY SAYING THAT BE CONFIDENT …BUT THE THING IS IF U REALLY FINISHED ALL PREPARATION THAN ONLY CONFIDENCE WILL COME ”

(means touch all possible 8-10 technical subjects basics & rs agarwal both books and puzzles and english aaaannnnnndddd good in english speaking n communication skill…
“`finally i want to say luck is nothing in the world, write ur own luck by hard work“`)

best wishes … do well!!!

This post was submitted by dharmendra.

ADOBE Interview Paper, 6th September 2010

Engineering Round: (15 question)

1 Finding height of binary tree

2. Number of times multiplication is required:
int computeXn(int x int n)
{
if(n%2=0)
{
return x*x;
}
else if(n%2=0)
{
int y computeXn(x n/2);
return y*y;
}
else if(n%2=1)
{
int y computeXn(x n/2);
return y*y*x;
}
}
Calculating power of a tree for 5^12.

3. Polynomial A+Bx+Cx^2+….+Nx^(n-1) this representation is more suitable for which data structure. Then P and Q are two such polynomial and how to add that two using that data structure. WAP for that.

4. Specification of variables in one language: letter follow by letter or digit.
Options:
1. (LUD)*
2. L.(LUD)* => this one right.
3. L.(L.D)+
4. L.(L.D)*

5. How Generic Swap of two elements can be implemented? that supports all type line int char float double etc..

6. Two rectangle is given with following data structure
rectangle {
int left_X;
int Left_X;
int right_X;
int Right_Y;
}
Two are in X-axis wise. How to find that they are intersected or not? WAP for that…

7. Free( P) How it decide how much space should be freed in c?

8. Head(aann)=a Tail(aann)=ann cont(aa,bb)=aabb; For which of the following : cont(head(s),head(tail(tail(s)))=’ac’
i. aaac
ii. abbc
iii. accc
iv. abdc

C Round: (10 question)

1. Diff between typedef and #define?

2. getbis function gives n bits from the position p of an binary no A.

3. You have to sort large data. But your memory does not have so much space. how you can sort that.

4. a[2][3][4] pointer representation

5. You have two threads T1 and T2 they are reader and writer respectively.
With some specification:
ADDNEW.Process
PROCESS.SET
PROCESS.RESET
ENTER CS
EXIT CS
LOOP
EXIT LOOP
WAIT# PROCESS

6. sprintf() function used how and what means?

7. An array given Arr[] which is in decreasing order. How many swapping required in
for (int index=0;index
{
for(int j=n-index;j
{
if(a[j]>a[j+1])
{
swap(a[j],a[j+1]);
}
}
}

8. Finding Output:
int arr[]={10,20,30,40}
int varible_ptr=arr[0];
for(int index=0;index<4;index++)
{
printf(” arr[%d] = %d”, index, *(varible_ptr+index));
varible_ptr+=sizeof(int);
}
Ans:
output:
arr[0]=10
arr[1]=30…

Amdocs Fresher Jobs Interview Paper Pattern August 2010

Amdocs Written test consist of 2-sections.

1. Aptitude

2. Technical

Aptitude Section consist of following parts.
A) analytical quest, – 20 quest in 25 mins
B) Speed test – 20 quest in 15 mins. (it consists of pattern matching to analyse your adaptability to computer screen. This is easiest & most scoring section.)
C) Logical Reasoning – 15 quest in 20 mins
D) Reading Comprehension based on a technical subject – 6 quest in 10 mins (This Section is easy provided ur basics are clear. U need to be little speedy.)

Technical Test (3 section)

A) C/C++/JAVA ..U can choose one of them
B) Unix
C) SQL

Its a most tricky part. U need to be thorough in concepts. Time is enough but provided u know & understand properly. It is of approximately 1 Hour equally

In case of Online Test Sectional time limits are there. But in case of Paper-Pencil tesr no Time limits.

There is sectional cut-offs in technical & Aptitude . but no sub-sectional cut offs !!

Attempt all questions , I dont think there is negative marking. And even if negative marking is there, be bold & attempt all … after all Only those wins, who dares !!! After clearing Written there was Interview.

1) Technical:

Be prepared with your project. I was asked about JDBC-ODBC,Servlets,RMI,Hash-map class’ difference. Also about SQL query,program about palindrome,etc. Interviewers are very friendly & supporting. Also asked me about my city, Hobby,etc. As my father serves in Narmada Project, he asked me about that in detail. I replied everything about it. They try to check your level of logic,thinking power & ability to adopt situation in this round.

I cleared technical round & then filled a form.

2) HR round :

It was a long, and normal HR Questions, Introduction to family, Background, Strength, Weakness, achievments, etc..

BSNL JTO (Junior Telecom Officer) – Telecom Model Exam Paper 2009

Q.1 A house served by a 220V supply light, is protected by a 9-Ampere fuse. The maximum number of 60 W bulbs in parallel that can be turned on is
(a) 11 (b) 33
(c) 22 (d) 44

Q.2 An n-channel JFET has IDSS = 1 µA & VP =–5V. The maximum transconductance is
(a) gm = 0.4 milli mho (b) gm = 0.04milli mho
(c) gm = 0.04 mho (d) gm = 0.4 millimilli mho

Q.3 The base to base resistance of a UJT is 6 K Ohm when the emitter current is zero. If RB1 = 3.6 K Ohm, the intrinsic stand off ratio is
(a) n = 0.66 (b) n = 0.6
(c) n = 6.0 (d) n = 3.6

Q.4 A capacitor of 1µF initially charged to 10 V is connected across an ideal inductor of 0.1 mH. The maximum current in the circuit is
(a) 0.5 A (b) 1 A
(c) 1.5 A (d) 2 A

Q.5 Silicon has a preference in IC technology because
(a) it is an indirect semiconductor
(b) it is a covalent semiconductor
(c) it is an elemental semiconductor
(d) of the availability of nature oxide SiO

Q.6 Three equal resistance of magnitude 5 Ohm each are connected in delta. The resistance between any two pair of terminals of the delta will be
(a) 5 Ohm (b) 5/3 Ohm
(c) 10/3 Ohm (d) 3/5 Ohm

Q.7 The R.M.S. value of a half wave rectified sinusoidal alternating current with peak value Im is
(a) Im/1 (b) mI / 2
(c) mI /2 (d) mI 3

Q.8 For a series resonant circuit, at the half power points,which of the following is true?
(a) Current is half of the current at resonance.
(b) Resistance is equal to the reactance.
(c) The impedance is half the impedance at the resonance.
(d) None of the above

Q.9 The lossless line of characterstics impedance 300 Ohm is terminated in a pure resistance of 200 Ohm. The value of the standing wave ratio is
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.67
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.25

Q.10 The transient current in lossless L-C circuit when excited from an AC source is, sine wave
(a) Critically damped (b) Underdamped
(c) Overdamped (d) Undamped

Q.11 The values of L and C for a low pass filter with cut off frequency of 2.5 KHz and operating with a terminated load resistance of 450 Ohm are given by
(a) 57.3 mH; 0.283 µF (b) 28.66 µH; 0.14 µF
(c) 114.64 mH; 0.566 mF (d) 50.23 mH; 0.632 mF

Q.12 The driving point impedance with poles at ? = 0(zero) and ? = 8 (infinity) must have the
(a) s term in the denominator and an excess term in the numerator
(b) s term in the numerator and an excess term in the denominator
(c) s term in the numerator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator
(d) s term in the denominator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator

Q.13 A transmission line is terminated at its characterstic impedance. The reflection coefficent is
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 0 (d) 8

Q.14 In the circuit shown below, the current through the 3/11O resistance between terminals A & B is
(a) 4 Amps (b) 1 Amp
(c) 2 Amps (d) 5 Amps

Q.15 In a series RLC circuit operating below the resonant frequency the current
(a) I leads Vs (b) I lags Vs
(c) I is in Phase with Vs (d) None of these

Q.16 An antenna has maximum radiation intensity Umax = 10 Watt/Sr and average radiation intensity Uavg = 4.5 Watt/Sr. If the efficiency of the antenna is given as ?r = 95%, the input power of the antenna is
(a) 2.222 Watt (b) 12.11 Watt
(c) 55.55 Watt (d) 59.52 Watt

Q.17 In an airport, a receiving, antenna has a maximum dimension of 3 metres and operates at 100 MHz. An aircraft approaching the airport is 1/2 Km away from the antenna . The aircraft is in the region of the antenna.
(a) far-field (b) near-field
(c) close-field (d) Out of reach

Q.18 A lossless transmission line with characterstic impedance 500 Ohms is excited by a signal of voltage 10?0° volts at 1.2 MHz. If the line is terminated by ZL at a distance 1 Km, the input impedance s of the line for ZL = 8 (infinity) and ZL = 0 (zero) in Ohm, respectively are
(a) +j8, 0 (b) –j8, 0
(c) 0, – j8 (d) 0, +j8

Q.19 If the electric field of a plane wave is represented by E = 10 yˆ cos (109 t+30z) volt/m, assuming e is the dielectric constant, the corresponding magnetic field H is
(a) – ˆy e 109/3 cos (109 t + 30z) Amp/m
(b) – ˆx e109/3 cos(109t + 30z) Amp/m
(c) – ˆz e 109/3 cos (109t + 30 z) Amp/m
(d) + ˆx e 109/3 cos (109t+30z) Amp/m

Q.20 A 50 Ohm lossless line connects a signal of 200 KHz to a load of 200 Ohm. If the load power in 100 mW, the value for voltage minimum Vmin is
(a) ( 20)/4 (b) ( 10)/ 4
(c) ( 20)/ 2 (d) ( 10)/ 2

Q.21 Choose the correct statement
(a) Digital multimeters are built using current measuring elements, while analog multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(b) Digital multimeters are built using voltage measuring units, while analog multimeters are built using current measuring units
(c) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(d) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using current measuring units

Q.22 An analog voltmeter has a sensitivity of 10kO/volt. The galvanometer used in constructing the instrument will produce a full scale deflection when the current passed through it is
(a) 10 mA (b) 20 mA
(c) 50 mA (d) 100 µA

Q.23 The input versus output characteristics of a digital-to-analog converter is given in the table below: The converter is exhibiting
(a) offset error (b) statistical error
(c) linearity error (d) hysteresis error

Q.24 An optical fiber cable laid underground has developed a discontinuity at a distance d from the source end. The fault can be located using the instrument
(a) Optical spectrum Analyzer (OSA)
(b) Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR)
(c) Optical Power Meter (OPM)
(d) Laser Diffractometer (LD)

Q.25 Two sinusoidal signals of the same frequency are displayed on a dual-trace oscilloscope. One complete cycle of each signal covers 6 cm of the horizontal scale and the starting point of the horizontal scale and the starting point of the two signals are separated by 0.5 cm. The phase difference between the two signals in degrees is
(a) 30 (b) 45
(c) 60 (d) 90

Q.26 Transient signals can be observed using
(a) storage oscillocope (b) sampling oscilloscope
(c) wave analyzer (d) spectrum analayzer

Q.27 The trace on an oscilloscope continually moves to the right of the screen when
(a) the sweep is triggered.
(b) the sweep period is larger than the signal period.
(c) the sweep period is smaller than the signal period.
(d) there is no weep.

Q.28 In a dual trace oscilloscope, the display appears segmented when
(a) low frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(b) low frequency signals are observed in Chop mode
(c) high frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(d) high frequency signals are observed in Chop mode

Q.29 To distinguish between signals having very close values, we need an instrument with
(a) high accuracy (b) high resolution
(c) high sensitivity (d) high linearity

Q.30 Match List-I (Instruments) with List-II (Measurement in which the instrument is used) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:

List-I                                                     List-II
A. Lock-in amplifier             1. Patient monitoring
B. Sampling oscillocope        2. Overcoming ground loop problem
C. Isolation amplifier             3. Phase difference between two signals
D. Strip-chart recorder         4. Signal recovery from noise 5. Observing very high frequency signals

Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 5 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2

Q.31 A power diode has lightly doped n type substrate sandwiched between heavily doped p and n regions
(a) to increase reverse breakdown voltage
(b) to reduce ohmic loss under forward bias
(c) to decrease switching time of the power diode
(d) to improve transient behaviour of the diode

Q.32 An ideal thyristor is driving an R-L load of impedance Z. Input AC voltage is Vs = Vm sin ?mt. If thyristor is fired at an input phase angle of 90°. What will be the output voltage and output current across R-L load at the instant of firing?
(a) Output voltage is Vm and output current is Vm/Z
(b) Output voltage and output current are both zero
(c) Output voltage is zero and output current is delayed by an angle 90°
(d) Output voltage is Vm and output current is zero

Q.33 In a regenerative braking, which of the following is generally true?
(a) Back e.m.f. in the motor exceeds the applied voltage
(b) Back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(c) Kinetic energy of the motor is dissipated in a resistance
(d) Kinetic energy of the motor is dissipated through free wheeling
diode across the motor

Q.34 A step-down chopper, fed from a 120 volt DC source, operates a DC motor whose armature e.m.f. and armature resistance are 100 volt and 0.5O respectively. With the magnitude control ratio 0.6, the quadrant of operation DC motor is
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth

Q.35 For IGBT, which of the following statement is true?
(a) Switching speed of IGBT is more than bipolar transistor
(b) IGBT is a current-controlled device
(c) On-state collector-emitter voltage is less than that of bipolar junction transistor
(d) It combines voltage control features of MOSFET gate and high power capability of bipolar transistor

Q.36 The semiconductor used for LEDs emitting in the visible range is
(a) GaAs (b) GaAlAs
(c) GalnAs (d) GaAsP

Q.37 The polar bonds existing in III-V compound semicondutor, may be considered as equivalent to
(a) 1 ionic bond and 3 covalent bonds
(b) 1 ionic bond and 4 covalent bonds
(c) 2 ionic bonds and 2 covalent bonds
(d) 2 ionic bonds and 4 covalent bonds

Q.38 Which of the following pairs of crystal structure possesses the same atomic packing density?
(a) simple cubic & body centred cubic
(b) body centred cubic & face centred cubic
(c) face centered cubic & hexagonal close packed
(d) body centred cubic & hexagonal close packed

Q.39 The colour bands on a carbon composition resistor occur in the sequence: yellow, violet, yellow and silver. Its resistance is
(a) 470 KO ± 47 KO (b) 470 KO ± 23.5 %
(c) 47 KO ± 10 % (d) 47 KO ± 5 %

Q.40 The real & imaginary dielectric constants er’ and er” of 3 insulators at 1 KHz and 50° C are listed below:
Material er’ er”
Polycarbonate 2.47 0.003
PET 2.58 0.003
PEEK 2.24 0.003
At a given voltage, the lower power dissipation per unit capacitance at 1 KHz can be obtained from
(a) Polycarbonate
(b) PET
(c) PEEK
(d) Insufficient information to answer

Q.41 A battery of 40 V and three capacitors of 1000 µF, 500 µF and 100 µF are all connected in (I) parallel and (II) series. The ratio of total charge stored in case I to that in case II is approximately
(a) 3 : 64 (b) 64 : 3
(c) 160 : 3 (d) 104 : 5

Q.42 The magnetic flux f ( in Weber) linked with a coil at an instant of time t(in second) is given by f(t) = 2t2 – 20t + 40. The induced e.m.f. in the coil at the instant t =2 second is
(a) 22 V (b) 20 V
(c) 12 V (d) 10 V

Q.43 The speed of an audio cassette tape in a cassette player is 5cm/ sec. If the maximum frequency that needs to be recorded is 20 KHz, the minimum spatial wavelength on the tape is
(a) 40 µm (b) 25 µm
(c) 4 µm (d) 2.5 µm

Q.44 In a power transformer, the fundamental frequency of the hum arising due to magnetostriction is
(a) equal to the line frequecy
(b) double the line frequency
(c) 4 times the line frequency
(d) not related to the line frequecny

Q.45 At a particular temperature and current density, the critical magnetic field for a Type I superconductor is Bc and that for a type II superconductor ranges from Bc1 to Bc2 keeping other parameters unloaded. both superconductors are now subjected to a magnetic field B that satisfies the conditions B>Bc and
Bc1 < q =”4q9,” x =”d3″ q =”–4q9,” x =”dQ4=”" q =”–4q9,” x =”d3″ q =”–4q9,” x =”d4″ gap =” 1.1″ charge =” 1.6″ a =” 0.99,” ib =” lB” icbo =” 200″ ic =” 2.5″ ic =” 1.5mA” ic =” 3.5″ ic =” 4.5″ 1 =” A.Qn” 1 =” A.Qn+” 1 =” A.Qn” 1 =” A.Qn” k =” 0,” n =” (no.” mp =” 1.15.” x =” P.Q” y=”P.R” i0 =” X,” i1=” 0,” i2 =” X,” i3 =” X” i0 =” 0,” i1=”1,” i2 =” Y,” i3 =” X” i0 =” X,” i1 =” 1,” i2 =” 0,” i3 =” X” i0 =” X,” i1 =” 0,” i2 =” X,” i3 =” Z” k =” 0.” dt =” Ax(t)” a =”–2″ b =”10″ a =”0″ b =”0″ fc =” 0.16″ d =” 0.5456″ n =” 31.6″
(a) > 100 (b) > 500
(c) > 1000 (d) > 20000

Q.67 In an IF amplifier, the IF transformer is provided with tapping to
(a) increase the voltage gain
(b) increase the bandwidth of the resonance circuit
(c) increse the impedance offered by the resonance circuit to the following cascaded amplifier
(d) increase the quality factor of the resonance circuit

Q.68 Consider the wave form V(t) = (1+m cos?mt) cos?ct. Show that, if the demodulated wave is to follow the envelope of V(t), it is required that at any time t0
(a) RC <=?m(msin?mt0 ) / (1+mcos?m t0)
(b) (I/RC) >= ?m(msin?mt0 ) / (1+mcos?m t0 )
(c) 1/RC <= 1/(m?m)
(d) RC is very large

Q.69 QPSK system is superior to BPSK system because
(a) its bandwidth is higher than that of BPSK System
(b) interchannel interference in QPSK system is less then that in BPSK system
(c) bandwidth of QPSK system is half of the bandwidth of BPSK system
(d) in QPSK system inter-symbol interference is inproved

Q.70 A radio receiver is placed at one corner of a table and again placed at some other corner of the same table. Loudspeaker output is changed because
(a) image interference is reduced
(b) adjacent channel interference is increased
(c) of fading
(d) line of sight propagation is not utilized

Q.71 In time-division multiple access system, a traffic system on the receiver side must receive the traffic burst addressed to it. For this
(a) transmitting frame acquisition is required
(b) proper synchronization of the timing of transmit frame is required
(c) frame efficiency should be higher
(d) synchronization is necessary to overcome the perturbations of the satellite

Q.72 Earth coverage dish antenna is used in satellite system. It is characterized by the fact that
(a) It is a narrow beam antenna
(b) It is Parabolic antenna
(c) it is sharply focused within a small area of the surface of the earth
(d) it is a wide angle antenna which covers a large area of the surface of the earth

Q.73 In a Klystron amplifier, the RF voltage produces
(a) amplitude modulation (b) frequecny modulation
(c) phase modulation (d) velocity modulation

Q.74 For the proper operation of MASER at a frequency of 10 GHz, the material used is
(a) Al2 O3 with slight doping of chromium
(b) Ti O2 with slight doping of iron
(c) Ti O2 with slight doping of chromium
(d) Al2 O3 with slight doping of iron

Q.75 A rectangular waveguide is 4.2 cm by 1.85 cm. The cut-off frequency of the dominant mode through this waveguide is
(a) 3.57 GHz (b) 3.75 GHz
(c) 3.70 MHz (d) 3.57 MHz

Q.76 For an antenna to be frequency-independent, it should expand or contract in proportion to the
(a) gain (b) directivity
(c) wavelength (d) impedance

Q.77 Suppose that data items, numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 come in the input stream in this order. By using a queue, which of the following rearrangement can be obtained in the output order ?
(a) 1 2 6 4 5 3 (b) 2 4 3 6 5 1
(c) 4 2 1 3 5 6 (d) 1 2 3 4 5 6

Q.78 We are told that the integers between 1 and 1000 are arranged in a binary search trace with ‘<‘ as the ordering relation. Below are four lists of vertices encountered as we search for the number 363. Which list cannot be produced by this search through a binary search tree?
(a) 924, 220, 911, 244, 898, 248, 363
(b) 2, 252, 401, 398, 330, 344, 397, 363
(c) 925, 202, 911, 240, 912, 245, 363
(d) 2, 399, 387, 219, 266, 382, 381, 278, 363

Q.79 The number of 1’s in the binary representation of 13* 163 +11*16 + 2 is
(a) 8 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 12

Q.80 A disk has 500 bytes/sector,100 sectors / track, 20 heads and 1000 cylinders. Total capacity of disk is
(a) 1 GB (b) 100 MB
(c) 10 MB (d) 10 GB

Q.81 Suppose that the same clock signal is used to increment the microprogram counter and to load the control register. Which of the following asseration(s) is/are true?
1. Microinstruction execution time is at least two clock periods.

2. Microinstruction exceution time can be overlapped with fetching the next microinstruction.

3. Unconditional branch microinstructions must necessarily take longer than other types.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

Q.82 Some system architects do not find RISC instruction repertoire to be cost-effective because it
(a) result in large increase in programme size
(b) result in complex structure of microcode
(c) has been observed that an average compiler does not employ more than a limited subset of available instructions
(d) results in complex decoding of opcode filed resulting in longer execution time

Q.83 A stake machine pushes operands on a stack and evaluates binary operators by a pcs (i.e pop/compute/store) where the top two operands are popped computation is performed and the result is pushed onto stack. Evaluation of an expression (x* y) + (u* ?) by Reverse Polish notation in a stack machine needs
(a) 4 push and 3 pcs instructions
(b) 6 push and 1 pcs instructions
(c) 4 push and 1 pcs instructions
(d) 5 push and 2 pcs instructions

Q.84 A dot matrix printer takes 3 msec to point a character, and 1 msec for a space between two consecutive characters. If it prints 100 characters per line, its printing speed specifications in characters per second (cps) and time to print a line of characters are respectively
(a) 100 cps and 400 msec
(b) 2500 cps and 0.04 sec
(c) 250 cps and 40 msec
(d) 250 cps and 0.4 sec

Q.85 Consider the following program segment with 8085 microprocessor
LXI H 3600H
MOV A, M
HLT
The MOV instruction involves
(a) indirect addressing
(b) immediate addressing
(c) implicit addressing
(d) direct addressing

Q.86 To establish a communication between 8085 microprocessor and 8255 Programmable Peripheral Interface chip. the status of the chip select input would be
(a) TRISTATE (b) HIGH
(b) LOW (d) DON’T CARE

Q.87 Which flag does not change by the execution of the instruction DCR B in 8085 microprocessor ?
(a) Parity (b) Carry
(c) Zero (d) Sign

Q.88 Let the content of the memory location 3501H be 72H. Now consider the following program with 8085 microprocessor
LDA 3501H
CMA
STA 3502H
HLT
The content of the memory location 3502H after execution of
programme will be
(a) 27H (b) D8H
(c) 8DH (d) 72H

Q.89 Given the program segment below, how many times will the instruction LP: JNZ REP be executed?
MVI H, 02H
MVI L, 05H
REP : DCR L
LP : JNZ REP
: DCR H
: JNZ REP
……………….
(a) 10 (b) 260
(c) 510 (d) 7

Q.90 What addressing mode is used in the instruction RET?
(a) Direct (b) Immediate
(c) Implicit (d) Register-indirect

Q.91 A one-byte instruction is executed in the 8085 microprocessor by the following steps:
((SP) –1) ? (PCH)
((SP) –2) ? (PCL)
((SP) ? ((SP)-2)
(PC) ? 0008H
The corresponding instruction is
(a) JMP 0008H (b) PUSH PSW
(c) CALL 0008 H (d) RST 1

Q.92 The zero flag of 8085 microprocessor is to be set keeping the content of the accumulator unchanged. Which instruction is to be used?
(a) MOV A,A (b) ANI 00H
(c) XRA A (d) CMP A

Q.93 In class – A power amplifier, the collector dissipation is maximum when
(a) no signal is present
(b) signal swing is maximum
(c) signal swing is (1/1.414) of its maximum
(d) none of the above

Q.94 If cut-in voltage and forward resistance of each diode (in the adjoining figure) are 0.7 V and 1 ohm respectively, the current through the 48 ohm resistor is
8 V
+ 48 O
–
(a) 132 mA (b) 160 mA
(c) 0 mA (a) (1/6) A

Q.95 The lower cut-off frequency of the transistor stage in the adjoining figure is
Vcc
3 K
10 µF
V0
2 K
(a) 7.95 Hz (b) 13.25 Hz
(c) 5.30 Hz (d) 3.18 Hz

Q.96 In the adjoining current mirror circuit if Q1 and Q2 are identical and base currents are not neglected, then which of the following is true ?
I1 I2
Q1 Q2
(a) I2 = I1 (b) I2 = ßl1
(c) I2 = [(ß/(ß +2)]I1 (d) I2 = [(ß + 2)/ß]I1

Q.97 If rectangular input is applied to the adjoining circuit, it produces
R
C
I/P O/P –
+
(a) square output (b) spike output
(c) sinusoidal output (d) none of the above

Q.98 In an oscillator, if amplifier gain (A) without feedback is (1 + RF/ R1) and gain (ß) of the feedback network is 1/{3 + j(?Rc–1/?Rc)}, then which of the following is true ?
(a) RF = 2R1 (b) RF = R1
(a) |ß| = 3 (b) |ß| = 1/3

BSNL JTO Exam Paper 2005

When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of -
a) Each of them increases
b) Each of them decreases
c) Copper increases and germanium decreases
d) Copper decreases and germanium increases
Answer: d)
When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used -
a) VTVM
b) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Digital multimeter
Answer: b)

When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then –
a) Both will have equal value of resistivity
b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity
c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon
d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium
Answer: d)

When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = 0; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4
Answer: b)

For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = , the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes – 
a) drop back to acceptor impurity states
b) drop to donor impurity states
c) Virtually leave the crystal
d) recombine with the electrons
Answer: d)

The location of lighting arrestor is –
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is –
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
Answer: a)

Telemetering is a method of –
a) Counting pulses sent over long distances
b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None
Answer: c)

When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1´ 106 kg/cm2 and R is 100 ohms then the value of DR will be -
a) 2W
b) 3W
c) 4W
d) 1W
Answer: d)

As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –
a) Becomes zero
b) Abruptly decreases
c) Abruptly increases
d) Remains constant
Answer: d)

11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –
a) Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric pick up
c) Photo-Voltaic cell
d) LCD
Answer: d)

When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is –
a) Common base
b) Common collector
c) Common emitter
d) Emitter follower
Answer: a)

In a JFET gates are always –
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) unbiased
d) none
Answer: c)

The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of –
a) insulated gate
b) electrons
c) channel
d) P-N junction

An SCR conducts appreciable current when –
a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode
b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode
c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode
d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode

Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is -
a) An indirect band gap semiconductor
b) A direct band gap semiconductor
c) A wide band gap semiconductor
d) A narrow band gap semiconductor

An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be –
a) 111V
b) 100V
c) 90.09V
d) 70.7V
Answer: b)

When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is –

a) 5W
b) 10 W
c) 15 W
d) 20 W
Answer: a)

In the ac bridge shown in the given figure, the value of Rx and Cx at balance will be

Answer: 

Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –a) Z11 = Z22
b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22
c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21
d) Z12 = Z21
Answer: d)

BSNL JTO Sample Test Paper

BSNL JTO Recruitment Test

0. If the voltage applied across a capacitance is triangular in waveform then the waveform of the current is-
a) Triangular

b) Trapezoidal

c)) Sinusoidal

d) Rectangular
1. One of the following statement which is true for relative dielectric constant is -

a) It is dimensionless

b) It is not equal to unity for vacuum

c)) It?s value for all substances is less than one

d)) None

2. Pure metals generally have-

a) high conductivity and low temperature coefficient

b) high conductivity and large temperature coefficient

c) low conductivity and zero temperature coefficient

d) low conductivity and high temperature coefficient

3. For small size, high frequency coils, the most common core material is

a) Air

b) Ferrite

c) Powdered ion

d) Steel

4. For an abrupt junction Varactor diode, the dependence of device capacitance (C) on applied reverse bias (V) is given by-

a) C a V1/3

b) C a V-1/3

c) C a V1/2

d) C a V-1/2

5. A superconductor is a-

a) A material showing perfect conductivity and Meissner effect below a critical temperature

b) A conductor having zero resistance

c) A perfect conductor with highest dimagnetic susceptibility

d) A perfect conductor which becomes resistive when the current density through it exceeds a critical value

6. When a semiconductor based temperature transducer has a temperature coefficient of ?2500 mV/0C then this transducer is indeed a-

a) Thermistor

b) Forward biased pn junction diode

c) Reverse biased pn junction diode

d) FET

7. The location of lightning arrestor is -

a) Near the transformer

b) Near the circuit breaker

c) Away from the transformer

d) None

8. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is -

a) Increased

b) Decreased

c) Neither a nor b

d) Both a and b
9. Intrinsic semiconductors are those which -

a) Are available locally

b) Are made of the semiconductor material in its purest from

c) Have more electrons than holes

d) Have zero energy gaps

10. The primary control on drain current in a JFET is exerted by -

a) Channel resistance

b) Size of depletion regions

c) Voltage drop across channel

d) Gate reverse bias
11. The electrical conductivity of metals which is expressed in ohm-1 m-1 is of the order of -

a) 1010

b) 105

c) 10-4

d) 10-6

12. When biased correctly, a zener diode ?

a) acts as a fixed resistance

b) has a constant voltage across it

c) has a constant current passing through it

d) never overheats
13. The current amplification factor adc is given by ?

a) IC/IE

b) IC/IB

c) IB/IC

d) IB/IC

14. Compared to bipolars, FETs have-

a) high input impedance

b) low input impedance

c) same input impedance

d) none

15. The source-drain channel of JFET is -

a) ohmic

b) bilateral

c) unilateral

d) both a and b

16. diac is equivalent to a -

a) Pair of SCRs

b) Pair of four layer SCRs

c) Diode and two resistors

d) Triac width
17. When a sample of N type semiconductor has electron density of 6.25 ? 1011 /cm3 at 300K and if the intrinsic concentration of carriers in this sample is 2.5 ? 1013/cm3 then the hole density will be ?

a) 106/cm3

b) 103/ cm3

c) 1010/ cm3

d) 1012/ cm3

18. The statement 'In any network of linear impedances, the current flowing at any point is equal to the algebraic sum of the currents caused to flow at that point by each of the sources of emf taken separately with all other emf's reduced to zero? represents -

a) Kirchhoff's law

b) Norton's theorem

c) Thevenin's theorem

d) Superposition theorem

19. One of the following modes which has the characteristics of attenuation becoming less as the frequency is increased and is attractive at icrowave frequencies of circular cylindrical wave guides is ?

a) TE1 mode

b) TM01 mode

c) TE01 mode

d) Higher order mode
20. A two-port network is symmetrical if ?

a) z11z22 ? z12z21 = 1

b) h11h22 ? h12h21 = 1

c) AD ? BC = 1

d) y11y22 ? y12y21 = 1

21. For transmission line load matching over a range of frequencies, it is best to use a-

a) balun

b) broad band directional coupler

c) double stub

d) single stub of adjustable position

22. The poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the negative real axis with a pole closest to the origin. It can be realised -

a) by an LC network

b) as an RC driving point impedance

c) as an RC driving point admittance

d) only by an RLC network

23. Poles and zeros of a driving point function of a network are simple and interlace on the jw axis. The network consists of elements ?

a) R and C

b) L and C

c) R and L

d) R, L and C

24. For a two port reciprocal network, the output open circuit voltage divided by the input current is equal to ?

a) B

b) Z12

d) h12

25. In a short electric doublet the radiation properties are so that-

a) The induction field diminishes as the square root of the distance and is only appreciable in the vicinity of the conductor.

b) In the radiation, magnetic field is minimum when the current is maximum.

c) The radiation resistance of a short doublet antenna is extremely high.

d) Mean rate of power through a unit area of spherical sphere surrounding this doublet is proportional to the square of the elemental length, other factors remaining constant.

26. The frequency modulated (FM) radio frequency range is nearly -

a) 250 ?300 MHz

b) 150 ? 200 MHz

c) 90 ? 105 MHz

d) 30-70 MHz

27. In an underground cable the distortion in the transmission of carrier frequency can be eliminated by using -

a) Inductive loading

b) Resistive loading

c) Capacitive loading

d) Shielding

28. The charachteristic impendance of a transmission line with inductance 0.294 mH /m and capacitance 60 pF/m is -

a) 49 W

b) 60 W

c) 70 W

d) 140 W


30. For a quarter wavelength ideal transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and load impedance 100 ohms, the input impedance will be ?

a) 25W

b) 50W

c) 100W

d) 150W

31. The depth of penetration or skin depth for an electromagnetic field of frequency ?f? in a conductor of resistivity r and permeability m is-

a) inversely proportional to r and f and directly proportional to m

b) directly proportional to r and inversely proportional to f and m

c) directly proportional to f and inversely proportional to r and m

d) inversely proportional to r and m and directly proportional to f
32. When an antenna has a gain of 44dB then assuming that the main beam of the antenna is circular in cross-section the beam width will be -

a) 0.4456 0

b) 1.44560

c) 2.44560

d) 3.44560

33. Lens antennas used for microwaves are usually made of -

a) Polystyrene

b) Glass of low refractive index

c) Paraboloid surfaces

d) Dielectric media having large refractive index

34. One of the following types of instrument which is an electrometer is -

a) Electrodynamometer

b) PMMC

c) Electrostatic

d) Moving iron

35. When an ac current of 5A and dc current of 5A flow simultaneously through a circuit then which of the following statement is true ?

a) An ac ammeter will read less than 10A but more than 5A

b) An ac ammeter will read only 5A

c) A dc ammeter will read 10A

d) A dc ammeter will read zero
36. When Q factor of a circuit is high, then -

a) power factor of the circuit is high

b) impedance of the circuit is high

c) bandwidth is large

d) none of these

37. The resolution of a logic analyser is -

a) the maximum number of input channels

b) the minimum duration of the glitch it can capture

c) it's internal clock period

d) the minimum amplitude of input signal it can display
38. A memoryless system is ?

a) causal

b) not causal

c) nothing can be said

d) none

39. An air capacitor is a ?

a) time variant

b) active device

c) time invariant

d) time invariant and passive device

40. Thermistors are made of -

a) pure metals

b) pure insulators

c) sintered mixtures of metallic oxides

d) pure semiconductor

41. Pirani gauge is used to measure ?

a) very low pressures

b) high pressures

c) pressures in the region of 1 atm

d) fluid flow

42. These circuits converts input power at one frequency to output power at a different frequency through one stage conversion ?

a) AC voltage controllers

b) Cyclo converters

c) Phase controlled rectifiers

d) Inverters


43. In a forward voltage Triggering thyristor changes from ?

a) off state to on state

b) on state to off state

c) on state to on state

d) off state to off state
44. A thyristor, when triggered, will change from forward blocking state to conduction state if its anode to cathode voltage is equal to -

a) peak repetitive off state forward voltage

b) peak working off state forward voltage

c) peak working off state reverse voltage

d) peak non-repetitive off state forward voltage

45. Gate characteristic of a thyristor-

a) is a straight line passing through origin

b) is of the type Vg = a + bIg

c) is a curve between Vg and Ig

d) has a spread between two curves of Vg ? Ig

46. A four quadrant operation requires-

a) two full converters in series

b) two full converters connected back to back

c) two full converters connected in parallel

d) two semi converters connected back to back
47. If for a single phase half bridge inverter, the amplitude of output voltage is Vs and the output power is P, then their corresponding values for a single phase full bridge inverter are ?

a) Vs, P

b) Vs/2, P

c) 2Vs, 2P

d) 2Vs, P

48. In an enhancement type MOSFET the output V-I characteristics has ?

a) only an ohmic region

b) only a saturation region

c) only ohmic region at 10 W voltage value followed by a saturation region at higher voltages

d)an ohmic region at large voltage values preceded by a saturation region at lower voltages

49. The energy gap in a semiconductor -

a) increases with temperature

b) remains constant

c) slightly increase with temperature

d) decrease with temperature
50. In an electronic circuit matching means -

a) connecting a high impedance directly to low impedance

b) selection of components which are compatible

c) transferring maximum amount of signal between different kinds of circuits.

d) RC coupled stages
51. P channel FETs are less superior than N channel FETs because

a) They have higher input impedance

b) They have high switching time

c) They consume less power

d) Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes

52. Small increase in temperature in the CE connected transistor is the -

a) Increase in ICEO

b) Increase in ac current gain

c) Decrease in ac current gain

d) Increase in output resistance

53. An amplifier has a band width of 20 KHz and a midband gain of 50 without feedback. If a negative feedback of 1% is applied then bandwidth with feedback is -

a) 13. 3 KHz

b) 30KHz

c) 10KHz

d) 40KHz

54. The output of a class B amplifier -

a) is distortion free

b) consists of positive half cycles only

c) is like the output of a full wave rectifier

d) comprises short duration current pulses
55. An amplifier with negative feedback -

a) lowers its lower 3 dB frequency

b) raises its upper 3 dB frequency

c) increases its bandwidth

d) all of the above
56. What changes would be necessary in block C if FM signals are to be received -

a) Block becomes redundant

b) A FM detector would be required

c) A high frequency signal generator

d) An additional local oscillator will be needed

57. The main disadvantage of Diode-Transistor logic (DTL) is its-

a) greater speed

b) slower speed

c) average speed

d) none of the above

58. Time delay Dt in digital signals in an SIS O shift register is given by ?

a) Dt = N ? Fc

b) Dt = N ? 1/Fc

c) Dt = 1/N ? Fc

d) Dt = N ? 1/Fc
59. The output Qn is 1 in a JK flip flop and it does not change when clock pulse is applied) The possible combination of Jn and Kn can be ?

(y denotes don't care)

a) y and 0

b) y and 1

c) 0 and y

d) 1 and y

60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of ?

a) a flip flop

b) a transistor acting as a capacitor

c) a transistor

d) a capacitance
61. The 2's complement of 10002 is ?

a) 0111

b) 0101

c) 1000

d) 0001

62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of ?

a) two flip flops connected in series

b) two flip flops connected in parallel

c) a debouncer circuit

d) a-D- latch
63. Number of nybbles making one byte is ?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 16

64. The intrinsic impedance of free space-

a) is independent of frequency

b) decreases with increase of frequency

c) increases with increase of frequency

d) varies as square root of frequency
65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -

a) ?200 dB/decade

b) ?240 dB/decade

c) ?230 dB/decade

d) ?320 dB/decade

66. Considering the conditions-

1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing

3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin

System stability requirements would include

a) 1 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides ?

a) 24 hour orbit

b) stationary satellite

c) global communication

d) zero-gravity environs
68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of ?

a) space multiplexing

b) time multiplexing

c) frequency multiplexing

d) none of the above
69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a ?

a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone

b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF

c) A differentiator followed by a LPF

d) A clipper circuit by a LPF
70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using ?

a) AND gates

b) Band pass

c) differentiation

d) Integration
71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-

a) frequency shift keying

b) two ? tone modulation

c) pulse code modulation

d) single tone modulation
72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-

a) FM generation only

b) 100AM generation only

c) PM generation only

d) both PM and AM generation

73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-

a) reduce x-ray emission

b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots

c) increase screen brightness

d) provide degaussing for the screen
74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-

a) the keyed AGC amplifar

b) a clipper

c) an integrator

d) a sawtooth current

75. Band width of microwaves is-

a) 1GHz -103 GHz

b) 1GHz ?100 GHz

c) 1 GHz ?10 GHz

d) 1 GHz ? 106 GHz

76. In transverse Magnetic mode-

a) no electric line is in direction of propagation

b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation

c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation

d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation
77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to ?

a) Reforction of wave

b) Reflection of wave

c) Pierus through Inosphere

d) None

78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be ?

a) 600

b) 900

c) 1800

d) 3600

79. The transmission does not have -

a) Partition noise

b) Flicker noise

c) resistance

d) Short noise

80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -

a) capacitance

b) Inductance

c) Resistance

d) Is a linear device
81. Noise figure is calculated as ?

a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio

b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio

c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100

d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by ?

a) Nicholas chart

b) Nyquist plot

c) Bode plot

d) Root locus.
83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-

a) ?5, 1

b) ?2.5, 1

c) ?5,0-5

d) ?5, 2

84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by



The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-

a) zero and 1

b) zero and 10

c) 10 and zero

d) 70 and 80

85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ?

a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links

b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal

c) minimize free-space losses

d) maximize antenna gain
86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-

a) EIRP

b) Antenna size

c) Coverage area

d) Antenna gain

87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-

a) horizontal blanking

b) vertical blanking

c) the serrations

d) the horizontal retrace
88. The son seems to have -------- from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-

a) washed

b) inherited

c) admired

d) attempt

60. Basic memory cell of dynamic RAM consists of ?

a) a flip flop

b) a transistor acting as a capacitor

c) a transistor

d) a capacitance
61. The 2's complement of 10002 is ?

a) 0111

b) 0101

c) 1000

d) 0001

62. Master slave flip-flop is made up of ?

a) two flip flops connected in series

b) two flip flops connected in parallel

c) a debouncer circuit

d) a-D- latch
63. Number of nybbles making one byte is ?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 8

d) 16

64. The intrinsic impedance of free space-

a) is independent of frequency

b) decreases with increase of frequency

c) increases with increase of frequency

d) varies as square root of frequency
65. A system consists of 12 poles and 2 zeroes. Its high frequency asymptote in its magnitude plot has a slope of -

a) ?200 dB/decade

b) ?240 dB/decade

c) ?230 dB/decade

d) ?320 dB/decade

66. Considering the conditions-

1. High loop gain 2. Less ringing

3. Greater damping 4 Negative dB gain margin

System stability requirements would include

a) 1 and 3

b) 1, 2 and 3

c) 1 and 4

d) 2, 3 and 4

67. In the equatorial plane only Geosychronous satellite are launched because it is the only plane which provides ?

a) 24 hour orbit

b) stationary satellite

c) global communication

d) zero-gravity environs
68. Radio Broadcasting is an example of ?

a) space multiplexing

b) time multiplexing

c) frequency multiplexing

d) none of the above
69. PAM signals can be demodulation by using a ?

a) Low pass filters (LPE) alone

b) A Schmitt trigger followed by a LPF

c) A differentiator followed by a LPF

d) A clipper circuit by a LPF
70. In an FDM receiver channels can be separated by using ?

a) AND gates

b) Band pass

c) differentiation

d) Integration
71. The most common modulation system used for telegraphy is-

a) frequency shift keying

b) two ? tone modulation

c) pulse code modulation

d) single tone modulation
72. Use of varoctor diode in generation of modulated segial be-

a) FM generation only

b) 100AM generation only

c) PM generation only

d) both PM and AM generation

73. In colour picture tube shadow mask is used to-

a) reduce x-ray emission

b) ensure that each beam strikes only its own dots

c) increase screen brightness

d) provide degaussing for the screen

74. The circuit that separates composite video warefore from the sync pulses is-

a) the keyed AGC amplifar

b) a clipper

c) an integrator

d) a sawtooth current

75. Band width of microwaves is-

a) 1GHz -103 GHz

b) 1GHz ?100 GHz

c) 1 GHz ?10 GHz

d) 1 GHz ? 106 GHz

76. In transverse Magnetic mode-

a) no electric line is in direction of propagation

b) no magnetic line is in direction of propagation

c) bath magnetic & electric lines are is direction of propagation

d) neither magnetic nor electric lines in direction of propagation
77. Signal transmission in sky wave propagation is due to ?

a) Reforction of wave

b) Reflection of wave

c) Pierus through Inosphere

d) None

78. According to Barkhausen Criterion Phase shift of signal should be ?

a) 600

b) 900

c) 1800

d) 3600

79. The transmission does not have -

a) Partition noise

b) Flicker noise

c) resistance

d) Short noise

80. Varoctor diode has non linearity of -

a) capacitance

b) Inductance

c) Resistance

d) Is a linear device
81. Noise figure is calculated as ?

a) i/p signal to noise ratio X o/p signal to noise ratio

b) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio

c) i/p S/N Ratio / O/P S/N Ratio X 100

d) i/p S/N Ratio + O/P S/N Ratio

82. You can determine quickly the effect of adding poles and zeros by ?

a) Nicholas chart

b) Nyquist plot

c) Bode plot

d) Root locus.
83. The polar plot of G(S) = intercepts real axis at w = wo. Then, the real part and wo are given by-

a) ?5, 1

b) ?2.5, 1

c) ?5,0-5

d) ?5, 2

84. Laplace transform F (s) of a function f (E) is given by



The initial and final values of F (t) will be respectively-

a) zero and 1

b) zero and 10

c) 10 and zero

d) 70 and 80

85. A satellite link uses different frequencies for receiving and transmitting in order to ?

a) avoid interference from terrestrial microwave links

b) avoid interference between its powerful transmitted signals and weak in coming signal

c) minimize free-space losses

d) maximize antenna gain
86. The first determining factor in selecting a satellite system is its-

a) EIRP

b) Antenna size

c) Coverage area

d) Antenna gain

87. Equalizing pulses in TV are sent during-

a) horizontal blanking

b) vertical blanking

c) the serrations

d) the horizontal retrace
88. The son seems to have -------- from his father a somewhat gloomy and moody manner-

a) washed

b) inherited

c) admired

d) attempt

89. Essayist works with words as sculptor with-

a) water

b) stone

c) air

d) hills

90. What is a collection of sheep called ?

a) bunch

b) flock

c) herd

d) comet

91. Join these sentences meaningfully by choosing the correct alternative from the following :

You can buy a book. You can read it.

a) and

b) nor

c) either

d) neither

92. What is the opposite of Asperity ?

a) gentility

b) superiority

c) kindness

d) clarity

93. The Election Commission functions under-

a) Ministry of Home Affairs

b) Ministry of Law

c) Prime Minister's Secretariat

d) None of these
94. Article 352 of Indian Constitution needs to be revoked in case-

a) President's Rule is to be imposed

b) Emergency is declared

c) Services of a Government servant are to be terminated without any enquiry

d) A political party of national level is to be banned
95. Radio-activity was first discovered by-

a) Becquerel

b) Madam Curie

c) Rutherford

d) Jenner

96. Ninth Plan in India ranges from-

a) 1995-2000

b) 1996-2001

c) 1997-2002

d) 1998-2003

97. How much electricity does India propose to generate through nuclear power by the year 2000 AD?

a) 5,000 MW

b) 10,000 MW

c) 15,000 MW

d) 20,000 MW

98. In which year did the fall of Bastille take place?

a) 1769

b) 1789

c) 1889

d) 1869

99. To form a quorum how many members of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha should be present?

a) 1/10th of total membership

b) 1/6th of total membership

c) 1/4th of total membership

d) 1/5th of total membership
100. How may countries are non-permanent members of the Security Council?

a) 6

b) 7

c) 9

d) 10
101. The International Date Line is represented by-

a) 1000 meridian

b) 00 meridian

c) 1800 meridian

d) 900 meridian
102. India's first satellite was launched from-

a) Sriharikota

b) Cape Kennedy

c) Bangalore

d) A Soviet cosmodrome
103. Name the author of the famous book "Politics"-

a) Aristotle

b) Socrates

c) Plato

d) None of them
104. "Guernica" is Picasso's painting on-

a) The Spanish Civil War

b) The American Civil War

c) The French Revolution

d) The Russian Revolution
105. The object of the Supreme Court's Keshvanand Bharati ruling is -

a) To put a limit on Parliament's amendatory powers

b) To give unlimited powers to Parliament to amend the Constitution

c) To give precedence to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights

d) None of these
106. Which country in July '99 officially announced mastering of indigenously developed neutron bomb technology?

a) N. Korea

b) France

c) India

d) China

107. Shifting cultivation is commonly used in which of the following states?

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Maharashtra

c) Jammu and Kashmir

d) Nagaland

BSNL JTO Exam Pattern, Sample Papers, Books

This blog post follows two of my previous blog post on BSNL JTO Exam titled:BSNL JTO-2009: Notification, Eligibility & Forms & BSNL JTO Exam Syllabus – one giving you the introductory information on BSNL JTO exam, eligibilities, how to apply for the JTO exam while the other gives you the syllabus of BSNL JTO exam. The focus of this particular blog post is to help you prepare for the exam – by telling you about the exam pattern of BSNL JTO exam and giving you’re the sources of sample papers & available books. Exam pattern of BSNL JTO exam: Selection process of BSNL JTO exam consists of a written exam on all-India basis. There are 3 sections in the written test, to be answered in 3 hours without any gap in between the individual sections. BSNL JTO exam questions are of multiple choice objective type questions, the standards of which are those of Engineering Examinations of an Indian University. Syllabus for the three JTO vacancies i.e. JTO (Civil), JTO (Electrical), JTO (Telecom) can be found from this previous blog post. Of the 3 sections of the BSNL JTO written test, first two sections contain questions of the individual Engineering stream, with 50 questions in each section. While the third section contains General Ability questions from general English, current affairs, events and developments in Tele Communications, History of India and Geography. Thus 120 questions of say JTO (Civil) would have following exam pattern: Section - I: Civil Engineering Stream :50 questions Section - II: Civil Engineering Stream :50 questions Section - III: General Ability Test :20 questions Same exam pattern follows for JTO (Electrical) & JTO (Telecom) also. Based on the relative performance of all candidates and number of vacancies, BSNL would decide the minimum qualifying marks for candidates category-wise (i.e. OC/OBC/SC/ST/PH) for each section and also in the aggregate. To be selected in the JTO exam, candidates would have to score above this cut-off mark in each individual sections as well as in aggregate. BSNL JTO exam online sample papers: If you are thinking seriously about appearing in the BSNL JTO exam, naturally you might be wonderingwhere to get those sample/model/past years papers of BSNL JTO exam? I did the search for you on the net and came out with following results. The quality of not all these BSNL JTO exam sample papers is best and you might have to use them with a pinch of salt, using them for exposure only. Your main preparation material for BSNL JTO exam should be based on books given in the next section. Freshersworld.com: It has a good collection of 15 BSNL JTO Exam sample papers. Click here to view these online sample papers of BSNL JTO Exam. Placementpapers.net It has one BSNL JTO Exam sample papers. Click here to view this online sample papers of BSNL JTO Exam. Freshershome.com It has few BSNL JTO Exam sample papers. Click here to view these online sample papers of BSNL JTO Exam. I found that almost all the BSNL JTO sample papers posted on these sites are for the JTO (Telecom) & JTO (Electrical) engineering stream and could not find any sample papers for engineering streams of JTO (Civil). If you find any, kindly post it as a comment below. However, as the General Ability section is common to all streams, it can be found from all the above papers, question No.101-120. Books for preparation for BSNL JTO exam: I found following books could be useful to you for BSNL JTO exam. These books are available in most of the bookstores, but you can also order them online by clicking the links below, from Flipkart.comwhich offers huge discounts from 10% to 25%, apart from free shipping/postage in India. You can choose to pay through Credit Card/Debit Card/Internet Banking. You can also choose to pay through “Cash-on-Delivery” i.e. you pay in cash only when the same is delivered at your doorstep: Galgotia Question Bank in Electronics and Communication Engineering by Prem R.Chadha & Sarita Chadha Cover Price: Rs. 400/=, Offer Price: Rs. 300/=, Discount: 25% Upkars BSNL Junior Telecom Officers Recruitment Examination by P. K. Mishra & Jain. Cover Price: Rs. 145/=. Ramesh MTNL Elect & Tele Comm. Engg Guide by RPH Editorial Board Cover Price: Rs. 425/=, Offer Price: Rs. 383/=, Discount: Rs. 42/= (10%) Ramesh MTNL Computer Sc. Engg Guide by RPH Editorial Board Cover Price: Rs. 460/=, Offer Price: Rs. 414/=, Discount: Rs. 46/= (10%) GK Publishers Guide to BSNL Jr. Telecom Officers Examination (JTO) Cover Price: Rs. 450/=, Offer Price: Rs. 396/=, Discount: Rs. 54/= (12%) Above concludes this post on BSNL JTO Exam Pattern, Sample Papers & Books. Hope these would help you in appearing for the exam confidently. I would be on the look out for more BSNL JTO Exam sample papers and would post them here as I find them. So please check back later here again. Best wishes!